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Post #685600

Author
imperialscum
Parent topic
Who should the villain(s) of the sequel trilogy be? (if the sequel trilogy has villains)
Link to post in topic
https://originaltrilogy.com/post/id/685600/action/topic#685600
Date created
25-Jan-2014, 9:43 AM

darklordoftech said:

imperialscum said: darklordoftech is trying to say that in OT Palpatine was not a Sith and presents that as some kind of fact.

Kasdan asked Lucas how Palpatine, who was never a Jedi, can use The Force, and Lucas responded, "Anybody can use The Force." If Palpatine was a Sith, instead of saying, "Anybody can use The Force", Lucas would have said, "Sith can also use The Force."

Kasdan's question made an assumption that only Jedi can use the force. Lucas just corrected Kasdan's assumption by saying that everyone can use the force ("everyone" qualified everyone, including Sith). By no logical standard that is an implication that Palpatine was not a Sith.

For example, that's like asking basketball player if he can play football since he is not a professional player. And he would say that everyone can play football. Would that answer give you an indication that he is not a basketball player?

darklordoftech said:

imperialscum said: Same goes for "Darth".

I just said that I don't like that the prequels made "Darth" a title. You than said it's a fact that "Darth" was always a title.

You indeed said that prequels made a Darth a title. By that I assumed you implied that it could not be a title in OT. I then just said that there is enough indication that in OT that Darth could be a title in OT, if one chose to think so.