darth_ender said:
"The land" can mean region. Bear in mind that this verse is also speaking to a group of people that had not been in the Holy Land for hundreds of years. They were probably not familiar with the geography, but knew where Jerusalem was.
Bethlehem was a suburb of Jerusalem, very close (I think no more than 5 mi.). If I were to tell you I served my mission in Alpharetta, Cumming, Kennesaw, Griffin, and Buchanan, you'd probably not know what I was referring to. But if I told you I served my mission in Atlanta, you'd probably have a better idea.
I don't have the exact verses at the ready, but bear in mind that the Old Testament calls Jerusalem "The city of David." Luke 2 also calls Bethlehem "the city of David."
And yes, this has been addressed extensively by apologists as well and doesn't bother me in the least.
Thanks for the explanation. It's pretty well in sync with explanations I've heard from my other LDS friends. Personally, the discrepancy still bothers me, for the following reasons.
1.) Bethlehem is indeed quite close to Jerusalem, about five miles to the south. However, it must be kept in mind that five miles is a much quicker journey when traveling by automobile; in ancient Palestine, the primary mode of locomotion was walking. That being the case, I don't think it's accurate to label Bethlehem a "suburb" of Jerusalem. The Bible consistently treats them as separate cities, never conflating the two. This practice is, as far as I know, preserved in all extant contemporary extra-biblical documents as well. The moniker "city of David" is indeed applied to both, but for markedly different reasons. Bethlehem is the city of David's birth, while Jerusalem is the city that David conquered and from which he exercised rulership. Thus, they are "cities of David" in entirely different respects.
Now I realize that the distinction between accuracy and precision comes up often in discussions on inerrancy, but in this case it is not merely imprecise to equate Jerusalem with Bethlehem, it is simply inaccurate.
2.) If "land" is meant to be read as "region," it would be the only occasion that I'm aware of where "land of Jerusalem" is used in such a way. The far more common way of referring to the region would be "Judah" or "Judea," not "Jerusalem."
3.) If the Nephites were unfamiliar with Bethlehem, then it is lamentable that they knew so little of their own historical heritage. Bethlehem occupies a centrally important place in ancient Hebrew historiography. This is the city where the greatest Israeli king, King David, was born, and also where he was anointed king. It is also the burial place of Israel's favored wife Rachel, the homeland of the Levite who instigated the war against Benjamin in Judges 19-20, the hometown of Ruth and Boaz, and the prophesied birthplace of the Messiah according to the prophet Micah [Micah was written around 740-695 BC, at least ninety-five years before Nephi is alleged to has migrated to the Americas]. Given the historical importance of Bethlehem to the Hebrew people, the Nephites really ought to have been familiar with it if they were also familiar with Jerusalem.
4.) Here's the core of the issue: in Yahwism, prophetic accuracy is tremendously important. In fact, it's one of the two authorized tests for the veracity of a prophet given to Israel just before entry into the land (Deut. 18:21-22). The issue of confusing Jerusalem and Bethlehem thus becomes quite a serious matter, as it calls a prophet's credentials into question.
That's my take on it, anyway. I'd like to stress that I'm not trying to pick a fight or start an argument; the fact that you've been willing to field questions like this is quite commendable. I just want you to be aware of why non-Mormons might find Alma 7:10, and explanations given for it, objectionable.