I was trying to leave this thread alone, but I had to comment on this. That's the verse that's used to justify the baptism of the dead? Paul was writing to the Corinthians because some of them denied the Resurrection, but still were baptized in the name of Jesus. Paul was saying that who gets baptized in the name of a dead person if everyone is just going to stay dead? He was trying to convince them that they needed to accept the Resurrection to make their faith real. Even the context of the chapter on your site says as much.darth_ender said:
To put it simply (and to partially answer a concern raised by 005), we believe that we have the fullness of truth, insofar as God has revealed to man, as well as proper authority to baptize. Remember, we believe we are a restoration of Christ's church. As such, we believe that many have missed the opportunity to receive the gospel. We make this available through baptism for the dead, as mentioned in 1 Corinthians 15:29
I don't want to fight or alienate my friends here, I just had to weigh in. I'm done here.