Originally posted by: Kurgan

It belongs completely to Catholics,

I'll just say that this is the point of departure for you, and that thats your view. Since non-Catholics use it in non-catholic usage, that means it doesn't belong to Catholicism, even if they are the ones that coined the phrase. You're looking at it from the perspctive of Catholic dogma. Since that term--not The Immaculate Conception, the specific Catholic theological event--has come to encompass a broader, non-Catholic-specific meaning, it hence has more uses that those with regards to Catholic dogma. If I said "the Immaculae Conception refers to Jesus' sinless conception" (a common misconception about the term) that would be wrong, because thats in reference to a Catholic context where it has a specific point of reference, whereas in a non-Catholic context its definition is not related to the Catholic deities and their specific conditions.

In the Catholic context its a specific theological event. All other places, its just two words that describe a generalised definition of conception without intercourse. I'm sorry if you cannot believe or accept that.