Here’s a suggestion: remove the part in RotJ were Palpatine refers to Luke’s saber as “A Jedi’s weapon”.
Does that really contradict the PT, though? We see Vader has a saber throughout the OT, and we know for a fact that it’s not just his leftover Jedi saber, because Ben had that and gave it to Luke. Saying it’s a Jedi’s weapon doesn’t mean he’s saying it’s exclusive to the Jedi.
Yep. I’ve seen that suggested as an “inconsistency” in the past and I’ve never understood it.