we interpret it differently than Protestants (or rather, Protestants interpret it differently than us),
Why are making the distinction?
The Catholic Church existed before Protestantism, so the Catholic interpretation is older.
I still don’t see the reason to make a distinction between saying “we interpret it differently than Protestants” and “Protestants interpret it differently than us”. It is the same thing. Protestants and Catholics interpret the scripture differently.
c. Various translations into the vernacular were banned, but this was because they were bad translations, not because people were only allowed to read the Bible in Latin.
Tyndall would like a word with you on that subject.
Tyndale’s translation was in fact ideological. Among other things, he sought to undermine the clergy and translated the Greek word ekklesia with “congregation” rather than “church,” essentially undermining the ecclesiology of the Catholic Church. Basically he was imposing his own ideas on what Scripture was saying, and the Catholic Church did not want him to mislead people. It was wrong to execute him, but in the Church’s view, souls were at stake.
Well I am not expert on the accuracy of Tyndale’s translation. But from what I know, I think it was more than just the Catholic church objecting to bad translation, it was objecting to translating the Bible from Latin into English and other languages. I am pretty sure there was Catholic opposition to the KJV.