Originally posted by: MagnoliaFan
Also, you didn't seem to address the fact that Yoda himself must have been a Dark Lord of the Sith in order to have had knowledge of the rule, as it was put into place AFTER they were wiped out... and that comes from George himself.
Also, you didn't seem to address the fact that Yoda himself must have been a Dark Lord of the Sith in order to have had knowledge of the rule, as it was put into place AFTER they were wiped out... and that comes from George himself.
Who cares what Lucas said? As far as the movies themselves are concerned, you have to assume that there was some interaction with the Sith at some point after the 'rule of two' went into effect. This only makes sense, given we don't even know the reason for it inside the movies.
And the proof is in the pudding -- because Yoda knows it.